Black Belt Certification Exam
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Question 1 of 340
1. Question
A Cause and Effect Diagram is used to identify, organize and graphically display the potential causes of a specific effect or event?
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Question 2 of 340
2. Question
Cause and Effect Diagram provides quantitative analysis of correlation between each cause and the effect.
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Question 3 of 340
3. Question
Cp considers the withinsubgroup standard deviation and Pp considers the total standard deviation from the sample data?
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Question 4 of 340
4. Question
Cp, and Pp take both total variation and the average of the process into consideration when measuring the process capability?
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Question 5 of 340
5. Question
Cpk measures the process’s potential capability to meet the twosided specifications. It doesn’t take the process average into consideration?
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Question 6 of 340
6. Question
If Kappa is equal to 0, the measurement system is excellent?
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Question 7 of 340
7. Question
Median is the average of a set of data?
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Question 8 of 340
8. Question
Median is the middle value in a set of data?
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Question 9 of 340
9. Question
Mode is the value in a data set that occurs most frequently?
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Question 10 of 340
10. Question
SIPOC is an acronym using which includes the following words except?
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Question 11 of 340
11. Question
Standard Deviation is a measure that describes how far the data points spread away from the mean?
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Question 12 of 340
12. Question
Which of the following is not a common source of variation in most measurement systems?
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Question 13 of 340
13. Question
Which of the following items is not related to the accuracy of the measurement system?
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Question 14 of 340
14. Question
Which of the following measurements is NOT a process capability index?
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Question 15 of 340
15. Question
__________ is how consistent measurements deliver the same values under the same circumstances?
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Question 16 of 340
16. Question
The risk prioritization number is the product of the ______ score, _____ score and ______ score?
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Question 17 of 340
17. Question
Process ________ measures how well the process performs to meet given customer specification limits?
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Question 18 of 340
18. Question
__________ is the difference between the observed value and the true value of a measurement?
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Question 19 of 340
19. Question
______ should be used when trying to understand the links between customers, process steps and process outputs
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Question 20 of 340
20. Question
For the normal distribution, about _____% of the data fall within +/ 2 standard deviation from the mean?
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Question 21 of 340
21. Question
A ________ is a graphical tool to present the distribution of the data
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Question 22 of 340
22. Question
Process stability is a prerequisite for process capability analysis?
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Question 23 of 340
23. Question
___________ is an analysis technique to identify, evaluate and prioritize a potential deficiency in a process so that the project team can design action plans to reduce the probability of the failure or deficiency from occurring?
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Question 24 of 340
24. Question
______________ is applied to “infer” the characteristics or relationships of the populations from which the data are collected?
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Question 25 of 340
25. Question
A ________ is a graphical representation of a process flow
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Question 26 of 340
26. Question
_________is applied to describe the main characteristics of a collection of data?
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Question 27 of 340
27. Question
In a Variable Gage R and R, the acceptable % contribution of variation attributable to Repeatability and Reproducibility should be less than _____%
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Question 28 of 340
28. Question
How might you display central location on a nominal scale?
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Question 29 of 340
29. Question
The interquartile range is NOT which of the following?
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Question 30 of 340
30. Question
Which of the following tools did Kaoru Ishikawa invent?
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Question 31 of 340
31. Question
Which are not continuous data?
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Question 32 of 340
32. Question
What are Discrete Data?
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Question 33 of 340
33. Question
What type of data do we prefer?
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Question 34 of 340
34. Question
How do we summarize discrete data?
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Question 35 of 340
35. Question
How do we summarize continuous data?
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Question 36 of 340
36. Question
What is the middle value of a set of data?
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Question 37 of 340
37. Question
How is variance calculated?
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Question 38 of 340
38. Question
What do we need to know to completely describe a normal distribution?
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Question 39 of 340
39. Question
Which of the following is not an intended learning outcome of an MSA?
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Question 40 of 340
40. Question
What is Bias?
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Question 41 of 340
41. Question
Performance within the Upper Specification Limit (USL) and the Lower Specification Limit (LSL) will make a customer satisfied?
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Question 42 of 340
42. Question
An estimate of the probability of an event occurring depending on the standard deviation from the Mean is based on?
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Question 43 of 340
43. Question
The Cp for a process with an average of 100 and a standard deviation (within) of 12 and upper and lower specification limits of 114 and 90 would be?
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Question 44 of 340
44. Question
The Cpk for a process with an average of 100 and a standard deviation (within) of 2 with upper and lower specification limits of 114 and 94 would be?
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Question 45 of 340
45. Question
A Pchart might be used to display the rate of defectives for this type of capability analysis?
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Question 46 of 340
46. Question
What is the difference between Cp and Cpk?
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Question 47 of 340
47. Question
How many factors are used to calculate RPN?
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Question 48 of 340
48. Question
In an MSA, total variability is from
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Question 49 of 340
49. Question
If extreme outliers exist in a dataset, this would warrant the use of __________ to illustrate the center location.
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Question 50 of 340
50. Question
Can you add standard deviations?
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Question 51 of 340
51. Question
Can you add variance?
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Question 52 of 340
52. Question
Variation of the outputs of a process refers to how broadly distributed the results are relative to the average.
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Question 53 of 340
53. Question
Which tool has as its objective as the identification of various potential causes or factors influencing a process output?
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Question 54 of 340
54. Question
Early in a LSS project a Belt may assemble several people familiar with the process to identify various ways something could fail and what problems that failure would cause. Which tool would the belt use for this?
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Question 55 of 340
55. Question
Which of the following is not an example of continuous data?
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Question 56 of 340
56. Question
The difference between the largest number of a data set and the smallest is called the_______?
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Question 57 of 340
57. Question
In a Measurement System, _______________ is a measure of how tightly grouped a set of data is while ________________is a measure of how close to a target a set of data is.
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Question 58 of 340
58. Question
Capability Analysis is a measurement of the ability of the process to meet specified requirements.
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Question 59 of 340
59. Question
For us to determine the performance of our process at the beginning of a LSS project we must gather data on its longterm performance in an “asis” condition. This is commonly referred to as ______________?
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Question 60 of 340
60. Question
Stability in an MSA is the consistency of measurements of the same objects over time?
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Question 61 of 340
61. Question
SIPOC stands for Suppliers, _______, Process, Output and Customers
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Question 62 of 340
62. Question
With Measurement System Analysis, we are concerned with Precision and _______ of the data to be collected.
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Question 63 of 340
63. Question
The Mode is the least frequently occurring value in a distribution of data.
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Question 64 of 340
64. Question
One of the primary objectives of constructing an XY Matrix is to separate the vital few X’s from the trivial many.
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Question 65 of 340
65. Question
If a set of data is very similar in value from point to point yet far off the mark relative to a given target value, this data could be said to be…
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Question 66 of 340
66. Question
Stability, Bias and Linearity define the __________ of a Measurement System
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Question 67 of 340
67. Question
Deviations of measured values over time from the true value is known as ________?
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Question 68 of 340
68. Question
Variation in measurements made by different appraisers using the same measuring instrument when measuring identical objects is referred to as?
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Question 69 of 340
69. Question
The SIPOC provides all the following benefits EXCEPT:
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Question 70 of 340
70. Question
As a standard for a process to be at the 6 Sigma quality level, it must have?
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Question 71 of 340
71. Question
Which of the following is the one that is not part of the 7 deadly Muda?
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Question 72 of 340
72. Question
DPU is calculated by dividing the number of defects by the number of units
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Question 73 of 340
73. Question
Nominal Data are discrete and rank ordered?
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Question 74 of 340
74. Question
For the normal distribution, about _____% of the data fall within +/ 1 standard deviation from the mean?
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Question 75 of 340
75. Question
Reproducibility evaluates whether the same appraiser can obtain the same value multiple times when measuring the same object using the same equipment under the same environment.
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Question 76 of 340
76. Question
Being stable does not guarantee a process to be capable. However, being stable is a prerequisite to determine whether a process is capable.
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Question 77 of 340
77. Question
A Pp of greater than 1 suggests..
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Question 78 of 340
78. Question
A Pp of less than 1 suggests..
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Question 79 of 340
79. Question
Mood’s median is more robust to outliers and is an alternative to KruskalWallis?
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Question 80 of 340
80. Question
Which of the following is not a correct combination of accurate Gage R and R interpretations?
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Question 81 of 340
81. Question
If the correlation coefficient of two variables is zero, the two variables are independent?
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Question 82 of 340
82. Question
Correlation implies causation?
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Question 83 of 340
83. Question
R2 measures the proportion of variability in the data which can be explained by the model?
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Question 84 of 340
84. Question
In a multiple linear regression analysis, the pvalues of the insignificant predictors are the ones that are smaller than the alpha level?
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Question 85 of 340
85. Question
When eliminating insignificant variables from a multiple linear regression model, we should remove all insignificant variables at the same time?
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Question 86 of 340
86. Question
Multicollinearity is the situation when two or more independent variables in a multiple regression model are correlated with each other?
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Question 87 of 340
87. Question
Replication in DOE increases the total degrees of freedom?
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Question 88 of 340
88. Question
Fractional factorial experiments require fewer resources and runs than full factorial experiments?
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Question 89 of 340
89. Question
Which of the following situations does NOT indicate that the simple linear regression model is statistically significant?
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Question 90 of 340
90. Question
What is the total degrees of freedom of a simple linear regression model built using 25 data points?
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Question 91 of 340
91. Question
Which of the following assumptions is NOT required to ensure the reliability of the linear regression model?
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Question 92 of 340
92. Question
In a twolevel full factorial DOE with four factors, how many runs should there be?
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Question 93 of 340
93. Question
In an orthogonal design, the sum of products for each run should equal zero?
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Question 94 of 340
94. Question
What is the resolution of a 231 DOE?
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Question 95 of 340
95. Question
Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures both linear and nonlinear relationship between two variables?
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Question 96 of 340
96. Question
In a resolution III design, the main effects are confounded with?
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Question 97 of 340
97. Question
A correlation coefficient of 0.00 means there is absolutely no relationship?
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Question 98 of 340
98. Question
Which of the following correlation coefficients best represents a strong positive linear relationship?
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Question 99 of 340
99. Question
Which of the following correlation coefficients best represents a strong inverse linear relationship?
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Question 100 of 340
100. Question
Which of the following correlation coefficients best represents a moderate positive linear relationship?
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Question 101 of 340
101. Question
Which of the following correlation coefficients best represents the absence of a linear relationship?
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Question 102 of 340
102. Question
Which of the following correlation coefficients do not represent a perfect linear relationship?
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Question 103 of 340
103. Question
Which of the following is a way in which you might deal with multicollinearity?
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Question 104 of 340
104. Question
Would increasing the sample size be an effective way to deal multicollinearity?
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Question 105 of 340
105. Question
If VIF ≥ 10, there is no multicollinearity?
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Question 106 of 340
106. Question
If VIF = 1, there is no multicollinearity?
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Question 107 of 340
107. Question
Experiments are passive studies in which historical data are used to conduct analysis?
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Question 108 of 340
108. Question
In DOE the principle of parsimony suggests that the goal of DOE is to use the minimum amount of data to discover the maximum amount of information?
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Question 109 of 340
109. Question
When two input factors are aliases of each other, the effects they each have on the response cannot be separated?
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Question 110 of 340
110. Question
A Resolution III DOE confounds its main effect with?
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Question 111 of 340
111. Question
A Resolution IV DOE confounds its main effect with?
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Question 112 of 340
112. Question
A Resolution V DOE confounds its main effect with?
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Question 113 of 340
113. Question
R2 is also referred to as the coefficient of determination?
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Question 114 of 340
114. Question
_________ is used to model the linear relationship between one output and two or more inputs?
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Question 115 of 340
115. Question
_______ are the vertical differences between actual values and the predicted values or the “fitted line” created by a regression model?
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Question 116 of 340
116. Question
When the variance inflation factor of an independent variable is larger than ______ there is large multicollinearity for this variable in the model?
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Question 117 of 340
117. Question
______ is the measure or quantifiable degree of confounding?
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Question 118 of 340
118. Question
What is the primary purpose of linear correlation analysis?
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Question 119 of 340
119. Question
Multiple linear regression is best described by which?
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Question 120 of 340
120. Question
What is the coefficient in this regression formula: Length = 3.5 + 1.29 mass
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Question 121 of 340
121. Question
Regression analysis does not rely on this assumption about the residuals
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Question 122 of 340
122. Question
When are correlation and linear regression not used?
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Question 123 of 340
123. Question
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
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Question 124 of 340
124. Question
When is the degree of association Moderate?
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Question 125 of 340
125. Question
How is the transformation of nonnormal data into normal data done?
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Question 126 of 340
126. Question
What does a variance inflation factor (VIF) of 5 indicate?
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Question 127 of 340
127. Question
One factor at a time (OFAT) is a type of DOE
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Question 128 of 340
128. Question
Your multiple regression model returned 3 variables that were significant, and the model looks good based on all other measures. Of the 3 variables, which one has the most influence on your “Y?
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Question 129 of 340
129. Question
An interaction effect is the average change in the response variable resulting from changes in the levels of one factor?
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Question 130 of 340
130. Question
Interaction effect is the average change in the response resulting from the change in the interaction of multiple factors?
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Question 131 of 340
131. Question
Fractional factorials are less able to determine effects because of fewer degrees of freedom available to evaluate higher order interactions?
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Question 132 of 340
132. Question
Factor levels are the selected settings of a factor we are testing in the experiment
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Question 133 of 340
133. Question
_______ are the number of times running an individual treatment is repeated in a DOE?
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Question 134 of 340
134. Question
An experiment design is ________ if the main effect of one factor can be evaluated independent of other factors.
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Question 135 of 340
135. Question
_______is the quantification or degree of confounding in a DOE?
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Question 136 of 340
136. Question
The following descriptions is best matched with which DOE term; The Y or Dependent Variable or Process output measurement?
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Question 137 of 340
137. Question
The following descriptions is best matched with which DOE term; The change in the average response across two levels of a factor or between experimental conditions?
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Question 138 of 340
138. Question
The following descriptions is best matched with which DOE term; The X’s or Inputs or Independent variables?
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Question 139 of 340
139. Question
The following descriptions is best matched with which DOE term; Factor settings usually high and low, or + and , or 1 and 1
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Question 140 of 340
140. Question
Which of the following is a key advantage of DOE over passive learning?
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Question 141 of 340
141. Question
Statistical process control can be used in different phases of six sigma projects, such as before and after implementation of improvements?
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Question 142 of 340
142. Question
True or False, the following are valid characteristics of a Lean Enterprise; Pull Systems, Flow, Availability, Zero Waste, and Value Add
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Question 143 of 340
143. Question
What type of muda is waste from working more than required, scheduling more capacity than necessary or using resources that are overkill?
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Question 144 of 340
144. Question
Which of the following should not be included among the 5 Principles of Lean?
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Question 145 of 340
145. Question
Lean is only about removing waste from the enterprise?
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Question 146 of 340
146. Question
_________ is when more products are produced than are required by the next function or customer.
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Question 147 of 340
147. Question
The Japanese word for waste is Sieri?
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Question 148 of 340
148. Question
Some of the core concepts of Lean is to concentrate effort on removing waste, improving flow, and achieving ___________
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Question 149 of 340
149. Question
If we produce more than is needed by the next step in the process or more than the customer needs this is an example of which element of waste?
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Question 150 of 340
150. Question
The Japanese word for waste is Muda?
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Question 151 of 340
151. Question
The only purpose of LEAN is to concentrate efforts on removing variation from a process output and lowering costs
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Question 152 of 340
152. Question
A reduction in any type of Muda will always reduce outliers and defects?
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Question 153 of 340
153. Question
Lean Principles define _______ forms of waste that should be addressed by a business enterprise.
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Question 154 of 340
154. Question
Sigma refers to a roman letter that mathematicians use when discussing “average” or “mean”
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Question 155 of 340
155. Question
Six Sigma originated in the 1980’s at Motorola?
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Question 156 of 340
156. Question
Achieving Six Sigma has nothing to do with meeting customer expectations?
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Question 157 of 340
157. Question
Hard costs and soft costs are two types of COPQ
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Question 158 of 340
158. Question
CTQ’s are translated from VOC
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Question 159 of 340
159. Question
In Six Sigma Primary and Secondary Metrics are Mandatory
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Question 160 of 340
160. Question
To achieve Six Sigma the DMAIC methodology follows which approach
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Question 161 of 340
161. Question
Who is credited as being the father of Six Sigma?
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Question 162 of 340
162. Question
Which of these is not one of the 4 stages of team development?
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Question 163 of 340
163. Question
Which is not a characteristic of a successful team?
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Question 164 of 340
164. Question
A well written problem statement contains all the following except?
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Question 165 of 340
165. Question
Lean and Six Sigma are Both focused on Quality and Value for the customer?
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Question 166 of 340
166. Question
A process operating at 6 Sigma will only generate 3.4 defects per million opportunities?
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Question 167 of 340
167. Question
Continuous variables are measured, Discrete variables are counted?
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Question 168 of 340
168. Question
CTQ is an acronym that stands for what?
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Question 169 of 340
169. Question
The ________ metric is your critical measure, it’s the reason for your project, it’s your beacon. This metric is the single most important thing to understand for you to be successful.
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Question 170 of 340
170. Question
COPQ is an acronym that stands for?
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Question 171 of 340
171. Question
A Six Sigma process will only produce this many defects per million opportunities?
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Question 172 of 340
172. Question
_______ are flaws, errors or other nonconformities that compromise the value of a product.
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Question 173 of 340
173. Question
What is a Y measure?
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Question 174 of 340
174. Question
Who delivers the input for the CTQ?
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Question 175 of 340
175. Question
The essence of Six Sigma is to concentrate on removing waste (Muda) from a process while lowering costs.
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Question 176 of 340
176. Question
Which of the following best describe Six Sigma?
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Question 177 of 340
177. Question
Which of the following best describe Sigma?
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Question 178 of 340
178. Question
The higher a Sigma level the better?
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Question 179 of 340
179. Question
Which of the following might review Process Performance?
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Question 180 of 340
180. Question
What does DPMO stand for?
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Question 181 of 340
181. Question
Where in your SIPOC might stakeholders be represented?
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Question 182 of 340
182. Question
What is the longterm Sigma with a DPMO of 3.4 and a yield of 99.9996%?
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Question 183 of 340
183. Question
What are some LEAN Six Sigma objectives?
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Question 184 of 340
184. Question
To understand the CTQ attributes of a product or service, we need to get?
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Question 185 of 340
185. Question
Which of the following is not a key output of the Define phase?
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Question 186 of 340
186. Question
Who should have the most influence when writing a business case for a project?
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Question 187 of 340
187. Question
Which is not an example of hard savings?
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Question 188 of 340
188. Question
What is an X measure?
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Question 189 of 340
189. Question
Specifically, in Six Sigma, intentional changes in process performance comes from changing and controlling:
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Question 190 of 340
190. Question
A quality control function was introduced to catch defects before shipment to the customer. The cost of this quality control function is an example of:
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Question 191 of 340
191. Question
When a process is proven to function at a 6 sigma level, this means there are less than 3.4 defects per ______ opportunities?
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Question 192 of 340
192. Question
What is the Pareto Rule?
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Question 193 of 340
193. Question
Which of the following would not be a desired outcome of a Six Sigma program or project?
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Question 194 of 340
194. Question
If a process is determined to be operating at a 6 sigma level, then the number of defects per million opportunities is?
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Question 195 of 340
195. Question
The output of any process is comprised of the various inputs to that process. This concept is best expressed with which of the following formulas?
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Question 196 of 340
196. Question
Much of the efforts in a LEAN Six Sigma project are driven by a concept called VOC which stands for:
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Question 197 of 340
197. Question
As a Belt mapping a process she/he will use a ______________ symbol to designate a decision point in the process.
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Question 198 of 340
198. Question
Which of the following represents the information we are trying to achieve by seeking input from our customers in determining what is important to them?
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Question 199 of 340
199. Question
Cost of Poor Quality (COPQ) can involve both Hard and Soft Costs.
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Question 200 of 340
200. Question
The data analysis technique that separates more important factors, typically in a ratio of 80:20, is ________?
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Question 201 of 340
201. Question
When a Belt adds information to a Process Map that defines which department is responsible for the various activities displayed, it could be referred to as _____________?
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Question 202 of 340
202. Question
A SIPOC diagram helps us get a good overall look at a process since it identifies the Suppliers, Inventories, Process steps, Outputs and Customers
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Question 203 of 340
203. Question
Six Sigma refers to a process whose output has at least 95% of its data points within 6 standard deviations from the mean.
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Question 204 of 340
204. Question
Profit and market share would be the concern of which of the following?
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Question 205 of 340
205. Question
As we conceive and define a LEAN Six Sigma project, one of the overriding objectives we hope to accomplish is to reduce the __________
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Question 206 of 340
206. Question
How should CTQ’s not be established?
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Question 207 of 340
207. Question
In most cases, a project team is most autonomous and receives the least amount of direction during which of the following stages?
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Question 208 of 340
208. Question
What is not a good reason for spending so much time in the Define phase?
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Question 209 of 340
209. Question
The Pareto Principle is named after an Italian economist Vilfredo Pareto
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Question 210 of 340
210. Question
Which of the following is the name for the mathematical expression of the relationship between the inputs and outputs of a system?
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Question 211 of 340
211. Question
Which of the following suggests that the value or function of the entire unit or product has been compromised?
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Question 212 of 340
212. Question
A Six Sigma process is one that has process variation equal to or greater than six (6) standard deviations?
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Question 213 of 340
213. Question
Which is the systematic problemsolving methodology used to achieve Six Sigma?
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Question 214 of 340
214. Question
This type of process map has an additional dimension that is used to show which job performs a process step or makes the decision in a process?
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Question 215 of 340
215. Question
Which of the following would be considered a “Direct” data collection method used to gather VOC?
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Question 216 of 340
216. Question
The expense incurred due to waste, inefficiencies and defects?
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Question 217 of 340
217. Question
This is the measure of something you do not want sacrificed to make improvements. It’s a measure that keeps the project honest and helps to make sure problems are not just changing forms or moving around?
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Question 218 of 340
218. Question
You are a manager of a 3step production process and you want to assess the Rolled Throughput Yield of your entire process. The process has the following performance: 1100 units enter production process step #1. It is determined that there are 160 defects resulting from this first process step. What is the yield of process step #1?
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Question 219 of 340
219. Question
Which principle of the 5S methodology is about avoiding falling back to the old ways of cluttered and unorganized work environment?
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Question 220 of 340
220. Question
A Black Belt stores tools in marked locations so that workers can find and access them easily when they are needed. Which principle of 5S methodology is the Black Belt applying?
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Question 221 of 340
221. Question
Which of these 5S’s is the first in the order of proper execution?
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Question 222 of 340
222. Question
PokaYoke eliminates the defect as early as possible in the process
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Question 223 of 340
223. Question
Kanban system is a ______ driven system?
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Question 224 of 340
224. Question
5S Sorting: Items used weekly should be kept _______?
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Question 225 of 340
225. Question
Kanban systems are quick fixes to large inventory problems, workforce issues, poor product planning, fluctuating demand cycles etc.
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Question 226 of 340
226. Question
Mistake proofing is defined as…
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Question 227 of 340
227. Question
Which would not be representative of good mistake proofing?
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Question 228 of 340
228. Question
The 5S principle that says remove all items not required for the reoccurring work at hand and keeping only essentials nearby is known as?
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Question 229 of 340
229. Question
The Lean technique that focuses on making “important work flow issues” noticeable is called?
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Question 230 of 340
230. Question
A method utilized to streamline workflow in a manner that minimizes waste through the use of signals that trigger “flow” through each process step is known as?
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Question 231 of 340
231. Question
The practice of utilizing Mistake Proofing is also known as…
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Question 232 of 340
232. Question
The 5S approach utilized by a Belt to separate necessary from unnecessary items and frequently used items from infrequently used items is known as?
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Question 233 of 340
233. Question
As part of a 5S activity, tags or stickers are used to identify items in need of elimination or another categorization. This process is conducted at what stage of the 5S process?
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Question 234 of 340
234. Question
The use of Kanbans work best with pull systems for determining the timing of which products or services are produced
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Question 235 of 340
235. Question
When a Belt applies the practice of PokaYoke to a project, she/he is attempting to make certain the activity is _______
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Question 236 of 340
236. Question
In 5S, the approach that deals with cleansing, repairing, and/or painting machinery or other work spaces is known as which stage?
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Question 237 of 340
237. Question
Which of the following items should not be on control charts?
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Question 238 of 340
238. Question
Which control chart should be used to track average defects per unit?
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Question 239 of 340
239. Question
Which control chart should be used to track percent defective?
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Question 240 of 340
240. Question
Which control chart should be used to track the count of defectives?
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Question 241 of 340
241. Question
What is the recommended subgroup size when using XbarS chart to check for process stability?
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Question 242 of 340
242. Question
What is the subgroup size when using a IMR control chart?
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Question 243 of 340
243. Question
The individuals chart in an IMR control chart is valid only if the moving range chart is in control?
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Question 244 of 340
244. Question
Control charts are valid only if the data are normally distributed?
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Question 245 of 340
245. Question
If a process is stable, the future performance of that process is predictable within certain limits?
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Question 246 of 340
246. Question
In an EWMA chart, the more recent data gets more weight than the older data?
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Question 247 of 340
247. Question
The subgroup sizes of an NP chart are constant?
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Question 248 of 340
248. Question
Return on Investment (ROI) is the ratio of net financial benefits (either gain or loss) on a project or investment, to the financial costs?
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Question 249 of 340
249. Question
Net Present Value (NPV) is total value of all future cash flows discounted to today’s value?
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Question 250 of 340
250. Question
Which of the following reasons would not be a reason why one financial benefit estimation might differ from another?
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Question 251 of 340
251. Question
All the following are benefits of control plans except?
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Question 252 of 340
252. Question
Which of the following should not be a component of a control plan?
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Question 253 of 340
253. Question
Which of the following would not be among the collective elements of a great control plan?
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Question 254 of 340
254. Question
Standard Operating Procedures should never include process maps or step by step procedures?
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Question 255 of 340
255. Question
Communication plans are intended to plan and prepare for the dissemination of information?
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Question 256 of 340
256. Question
Communication plans should always include the intended audience, message and purpose?
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Question 257 of 340
257. Question
Standard Operating Procedures should never be documented?
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Question 258 of 340
258. Question
Control limits are approximately _____ standard deviations away from the process mean?
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Question 259 of 340
259. Question
The underlying distribution of the P chart is the _____ distribution?
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Question 260 of 340
260. Question
SPC is used to identify the ____ cause variation?
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Question 261 of 340
261. Question
Control charts present the voice of the ______?
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Question 262 of 340
262. Question
The first test in the Western Electric Rules is to check whether any one point on the control chart is more than ______ standard deviations away from the center line?
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Question 263 of 340
263. Question
You can use an individuals chart to track process outputs and to detect the presence of special causes using a sample size of 1?
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Question 264 of 340
264. Question
The Xbar chart plots the average values of each of several small sampled subgroups
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Question 265 of 340
265. Question
Which is incorrect about Ucharts?
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Question 266 of 340
266. Question
The NP and Pcharts are used for tracking _________?
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Question 267 of 340
267. Question
Control charts and their limits are the?
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Question 268 of 340
268. Question
An intended outcome of using SPC should be?
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Question 269 of 340
269. Question
A Control Plan is finalized at the end of a LEAN Six Sigma project and given to the Process Owner so she/he can follow it exactly for the remaining life of the process
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Question 270 of 340
270. Question
As part of the deliverables from a Belt in the control phase of a LSS project, guidelines must be established as to what process operators are to do when outputs begin to operate outside of established limits. These guidelines are known as the _________.
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Question 271 of 340
271. Question
The Control Plan is created following the finalization of the Improve phase and can be closed when?
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Question 272 of 340
272. Question
The use of station warning lights, tools boards, and jidoka devices represent the use of which lean concept?
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Question 273 of 340
273. Question
A concept that addresses the consistency of processworkers is called ________?
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Question 274 of 340
274. Question
SPC on the outputs is more preferred than SPC on the inputs when implementing SPC for your process.
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Question 275 of 340
275. Question
Variation in process performance is a consequence of several causes that typically fall into which frequently used categories of variation?
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Question 276 of 340
276. Question
When it comes to Control, one of the most effective means of eliminating defects is to…
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Question 277 of 340
277. Question
for a good control chart implementation, you should recalculate control limits and centerlines often?
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Question 278 of 340
278. Question
The data on SPC charts are typically constructed such that the most recent data point is the last one on the right?
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Question 279 of 340
279. Question
Which statement describes an undesirable situation when implementing SPC?
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Question 280 of 340
280. Question
Which pair of control charts is most preferred for subgroup sizes of 10 or less using continuous data?
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Question 281 of 340
281. Question
A Belt concludes a Lean Six Sigma project with the creation of a Control Plan. At what point should the Control Plan be closed out?
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Question 282 of 340
282. Question
If a project yields monthly savings of $4,000 beginning 4 months after implementation with an initial investment of $42,000 and training costs of $2,000, what is the 3year ROI from implementation?
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Question 283 of 340
283. Question
If a project yields monthly savings of $4,000 beginning 4 months after implementation with an initial investment of $42,000 and training costs of $2,000, what is the 5year ROI from implementation?
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Question 284 of 340
284. Question
Z distribution is the simplest normal distribution with the mean equal to ______ and standard deviation equal to ________?
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Question 285 of 340
285. Question
A ttest is a hypothesis test in which the test statistic follows the Student’s t distribution if the null hypothesis is true?
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Question 286 of 340
286. Question
In which condition should you fail to reject the null hypothesis?
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Question 287 of 340
287. Question
Inferential statistics is descriptive only and does not make any generalizations beyond the data at hand?
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Question 288 of 340
288. Question
Which hypothesis test would be the most appropriate to compare the means of 2 samples
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Question 289 of 340
289. Question
Which hypothesis test would be the most appropriate to compare the mean of a sample to a target value
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Question 290 of 340
290. Question
Which hypothesis test would be the most appropriate to compare the median of 2 samples
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Question 291 of 340
291. Question
One sample ttest is a hypothesis test to study whether there is a statistically significant difference between a population mean and a specified value or target?
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Question 292 of 340
292. Question
Onetailed hypothesis test is used when we care about whether there is a difference between groups and we don’t care about the direction of the difference?
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Question 293 of 340
293. Question
Oneway ANOVA (oneway analysis of variance) is a statistical method to compare means of two or more populations?
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Question 294 of 340
294. Question
Oneway ANOVA (oneway analysis of variance) is a statistical method to compare variances of two or more populations?
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Question 295 of 340
295. Question
Which of the following would not be considered an example of graphical analysis?
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Question 296 of 340
296. Question
The Exponential distribution is very similar to the Poisson distribution except that the Exponential is built on continuous variables and the Poisson is built on discrete variables.
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Question 297 of 340
297. Question
The higher the confidence level, the wider the confidence interval?
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Question 298 of 340
298. Question
The more variability, the wider the confidence interval?
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Question 299 of 340
299. Question
The null hypothesis for a normality test is that the data are normally distributed?
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Question 300 of 340
300. Question
The null hypothesis for a Paired ttest is: MuA – MuB = 0
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Question 301 of 340
301. Question
The proportion of the area under the sampling distribution and beyond the test statistic is pvalue?
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Question 302 of 340
302. Question
To reduce β risk, we decrease the sample size?
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Question 303 of 340
303. Question
Which hypothesis test is used to check whether the population of our interest is normally distributed?
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Question 304 of 340
304. Question
Which is NOT an assumption of a oneway ANOVA?
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Question 305 of 340
305. Question
Which of the following is NOT a goal of rational subgrouping?
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Question 306 of 340
306. Question
Which of the following tests would you use to determine if there is a statistically significant difference between a population mean and a specified value?
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Question 307 of 340
307. Question
Which of these would you reject the null hypothesis?
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Question 308 of 340
308. Question
α risk is the risk of making a Type I error?
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Question 309 of 340
309. Question
Which distribution has mean equal to np and the variance equal to np(1p)?
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Question 310 of 340
310. Question
MannWhitney test is a statistical hypothesis test to compare the _______of two populations which are not normally distributed?
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Question 311 of 340
311. Question
When the pvalue is _____ than the α level, we reject the null and claim that there is a statistically significant difference between different groups?
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Question 312 of 340
312. Question
A _________ test is a statistical method in which a specific hypothesis is formulated about the population, and the decision of whether to reject the hypothesis is made based on sample data?
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Question 313 of 340
313. Question
________ is a continuous probability distribution which arises in the analysis of variance or test of equality between two variances?
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Question 314 of 340
314. Question
The _________ distribution is a discrete probability distribution describing the probability of several events occurring at a known average rate and in a fixed period of time?
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Question 315 of 340
315. Question
A population is grouped into distinct and independent categories and then samples are randomly or systematically selected in each category of the population. Which sampling strategy is it?
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Question 316 of 340
316. Question
Statistical inference is the process of making inferences regarding the characteristics of an unobservable population based on the characteristics of the observed sample?
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Question 317 of 340
317. Question
The process of selecting a subset of observations within a population is referred to as sampling?
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Question 318 of 340
318. Question
The _______ is used to visualize sources of variation
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Question 319 of 340
319. Question
_________ is applied to infer the characteristics or relationships of the populations from which the data are collected?
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Question 320 of 340
320. Question
The probability of a continuous variable falling within a particular region is the integral of the _________ over the region?
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Question 321 of 340
321. Question
If the pvalue is less than 0.05 what is the general rule?
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Question 322 of 340
322. Question
Which is not indicative of statistical inference